TM280
Well-Known Member
Hi,
I hope someone can help me with an explanation. I am honing a razor for someone else, a Solingen full hollow Jaguar (rather old). It was sharp and in fine shape, but when I looked under magnification I saw a pronounced secondary bevel. I assumed this was from long term use of pastes. So I dulled on glass and took it to a 1k hone to quickly flatten out the bevel.
This didn't happen. After some time and no air hair cutting, I realized that the hone wear was increasing and stopped. The secondary bevel was still there, though smaller. So I put tape on it and honed it up in 10 minutes.
What I am confused about is how did these two bevels get there? I am thinking that the first bevel may be the factory bevel, but if the secondary bevel came from honing with tape, why would it be so difficult to correct? Or could the convexing of the bevel be so extreme that it would take the equivalent of years of spine wear to flatten it out?
Thanks.
regards,
Torolf
I hope someone can help me with an explanation. I am honing a razor for someone else, a Solingen full hollow Jaguar (rather old). It was sharp and in fine shape, but when I looked under magnification I saw a pronounced secondary bevel. I assumed this was from long term use of pastes. So I dulled on glass and took it to a 1k hone to quickly flatten out the bevel.
This didn't happen. After some time and no air hair cutting, I realized that the hone wear was increasing and stopped. The secondary bevel was still there, though smaller. So I put tape on it and honed it up in 10 minutes.
What I am confused about is how did these two bevels get there? I am thinking that the first bevel may be the factory bevel, but if the secondary bevel came from honing with tape, why would it be so difficult to correct? Or could the convexing of the bevel be so extreme that it would take the equivalent of years of spine wear to flatten it out?
Thanks.
regards,
Torolf